Given:p: Two linear functions have different coefficients of x.q: The graphs of two functions intersect at exactly one point. Which statement is logically equivalent to q → p?

The implication q → p says: if the graphs intersect at exactly one point, then the linear functions have different coefficients of x. An equivalent statement is its contrapositive: if the functions do not have different coefficients of x, then the graphs do not intersect at exactly one point. Not having different coefficients means having the same coefficients, which is choice B.

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