Which statement could be used to explain why f of x is equal to 2 x minus 3 has an inverse relation that is a function?

The function f(x) = 2x − 3 is one-to-one: different input values produce different output values because its slope is nonzero. A function has an inverse relation that is also a function precisely when the original function is one-to-one. Therefore, the statement that f of x is a one-to-one function explains why its inverse relation is a function.

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