Which statement could be used to explain why f(x) = 2x – 3 has an inverse relation that is a function?

A function has an inverse that is also a function when the original function is one-to-one. For f(x) = 2x − 3, different x-values produce different outputs because its slope is nonzero, so f is one-to-one. Therefore, choice B, “f(x) is a one-to-one function,” explains why its inverse relation is a function.

AI-written and checked against the verified answer.